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September
1,
2005, Vol.4, No.17.
Baptism
Part
1
Keith
Sharp
I
have been in friendly contact with a family of Baptists, the Kozateks, who
are congenial, morally upright, and dedicated to their religion. We
discussed a little concerning our religious differences, and Mrs. Kozatek
brought me by a copy of a book she likes to give people on the subject of
baptism. It is entitled I want to be
baptised and was written by Eric Lane, a British evangelical. The
point of the book is to encourage people to be baptized but from an
evangelical perspective. The book gives the evangelical position and
argumentation on most New Testament passages that deal with baptism. I read
the book and wrote a review of it for the Kozatek’s. Because of the length
of the review, it will be published in installments. This is part one of the
review.
Eric
Lane, the author of the book, stated, “If we could agree on baptism, this
would do more to promote unity than any other single factor” (24). I
believe he is right, and thus, I write this review in ardent hope it will
help promote the “unity of the Spirit.”
There
are a number of assumptions made in the book that are based on Reformed
(Protestant) theology. I am neither a Protestant nor a Catholic but simply a
Christian (Acts 11:26; 1 Peter 4:16; 1 Corinthians 1:10-13). I insist that
the Bible is our complete, sufficient spiritual guide (2 Timothy 3:16-17)
and that we must accept what it teaches regardless of the philosophies
(Colossians 2:8-10; Romans 3:3-4; 1 Corinthians 1:18 - 2:16) or traditions
(Matthew 15:1-9) of men. I try always to determine and describe my position
on any spiritual or religious issue by what the Scriptures plainly teach
rather than by reference to theological schools of thought (1 Peter 4:11). I
strongly believe there are errors on both sides in the debate between
Protestant and Catholic theology. However, in this review I plan to limit my
comments to those issues that directly pertain to baptism.
Points
of Agreement
Mr.
Lane states, “Paul says there is only ‘one baptism’ (18). This is
certainly true (Ephesians 4:5). He declares, “The ‘one baptism’
therefore is the baptism instituted by the ‘one Lord’ in Matthew
28:18-20" (21). Amen! This is highly significant, because in this very
passage the Lord Jesus claimed, “All authority has been given to Me in
heaven and on earth” (verse 18). Thus, we must do everything “in the
name of the Lord Jesus” (Colossians 3:17), i.e., by His authority ( Vine.
3:100; cf. Acts 4:18). We dare not act without that authority (2 Timothy
1:13; 2 John 9). Thus, whatever baptism we submit to must be the one
authorized by the Lord Jesus Christ.
The
author adds:
The
apostle Paul spoke most definitely about ‘one baptism’, meaning that
what Christ instituted prior to his ascension was to replace all previous
and existing forms of baptising:.... (106-07)
I
agree that this is implied in Ephesians 4:5. Thus, the only baptism pleasing
to God is the one baptism commanded by the Lord. Certainly, if the baptism
of John, which was from God but is no longer valid (Luke 7:29-30; Acts
19:1-5), will not do, then no baptism that originated with mere men is
acceptable to God.
However,
Mr. Lane appears to be inconsistent on this point. He comments:
But
since the only reference to re-baptism of John’s disciples is of certain
ones at Ephesus (Acts 19:1-5), it seems unlikely that
there was a general
re-baptizing (42).
This
is mere human reason in direct contradiction to what the passage plainly
teaches. The approved example of Acts 19:1-5 teaches that, though they had
received a baptism which formerly was approved of God, they needed to be
“baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus” (verse 5). The reason the
apostle Paul stated that they should “be baptized in the name of the Lord
Jesus” was that:
John
indeed baptized with a baptism of repentance, saying to the people that they
should believe on Him who would come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus
(verse 4).
Why
did this apply to the men at Ephesus but not to others? How many times must
the Lord teach something for it to be true? Certainly, anyone today who has
only received a baptism of human origin needs to receive the one baptism
that is by the authority of the Lord Jesus Christ.
Mr.
Lane also teaches:
This
means there is only one mode (or form) of baptism, only one right way to
carry out the practice. It means that there is only one meaning (or
significance) for baptism.... It also means that one class of persons is
qualified to be baptized (19).
I
strongly agree that immersion is the only scriptural “mode” of baptism.
In fact, according to the definition of the word “baptism,” sprinkling
and pouring are not even baptism, much less scripturally authorized
“modes” of baptism. The Greek verb translated “baptize” in the New
Testament is defined thus:
1.
prop. To dip repeatedly, to immerge,
submerge.... 2. to cleanse by dipping
or submerging, to wash, make clean with
water.... Thayer. 94) dip,
immerse mid. dip oneself, wash
(Arndt & Gingrich. 131) to
immerse.... (TDNT.
1:530).
The
apostle Paul twice describes baptism as a burial (Romans 6:4-5; Colossians
2:12). I also agree that penitent believers constitute the only class of
people qualified for baptism (Mark 16:16; Acts 2:38; 8:12-13; 16:33-34;
18:8).
Endnote
Because
Eric Lane is British, and his book was published in England, he uses British
spelling throughout.
Works
Cited
Arndt,
W.F. and F.W. Gingrich, A Greek-English
Lexicon of the New Testament.
Thayer,
J.H., A Greek-English Lexicon of the New
Testament.
Theological
Dictionary of the New Testament. ed. Gerhard
Kittel,
trans. Geoffrey W. Bromiley, article on baptism by Albrecht Oepke.
Vine,
W.E., An Expository Dictionary of New
Testament Words.
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